Hello friends, in today's article, we see the Cloning Vectors MCQ's that mostly ask in Exam. In these vectors, we see the MCQs of phasmid vectors, Ecoli vector, yeast vector, cosmid, etc.
so let's start one by one
Cloning Vectors MCQ's:-
Cloning Vector MCQ’s
1. What will be the consequence of not having an origin of replication (Ori) in the vector?
a) If an Ori is absent, replication of vector would not take place
b) As the cells divide after taking up the vector, both the daughter cells would be having the vector
c) A colony of transformed colonies is observed
d) The vector won’t be taken up by the cell
2. It is required to distinguish between the cells that have taken up the vector and that have not. It is done by using __________
a) multiple cloning site
b) Origin of replication
c) high copy number
d) selectable marker
3. Multiple cloning site (MCS) is defined as __________
a) site within the plasmid which contains a site for many restriction enzymes
b) site within the plasmid which contains a site for many restriction enzymes and they are not present anywhere else in the plasmid
c) as the site containing many sites for only one restriction enzyme
d) cloning many inserts together
4. Size of the vector is related to having a suitable single restriction site.
a) True
b) False
5. If a restriction site is 6 nucleotides long, what are the chances of finding it in a vector?
a) Once every 46 base pairs
b) Once every 64 base pairs
c) Once every 24 base pairs
d) Once every 16 base pairs
6. Which of the statement is true for pBR322?
a) It contains only an ampicillin resistance gene
b) It contains both ampicillin-resistant and tetracycline-resistant gene
c) The cloning site is present only in the ampicillin-resistant gene
d) It is a natural vector
7. If a plasmid is having two antibiotic-resistant genes, say ampicillin resistant and chloramphenicol resistant. If the plasmid grows in an ampicillin-containing medium but not in chloramphenicol, what can be concluded?
a) The insert is not present in any of the genes
b) The insert is present in the ampicillin gene but not in the chloramphenicol gene
c) The insert is present in the chloramphenicol gene but not in the ampicillin gene
d) The insert is present between both of the genes
8. If a high copy number is there, the replication is called ______ and if a low copy number is there the replication is called ______
a) stringent, relaxed
b) relaxed, stringent
c) relaxed, relaxed
d) stringent, stringent
9. Chloramphenicol amplification is carried out in various plasmids. Which of the statement is incorrect for it?
a) It is used for increasing copy number in plasmids containing pMB1 origin
b) Chloramphenicol promotes bacterial protein synthesis
c) The protein synthesis is responsible for chromosomal DNA replication
d) Chromosomal DNA replication is related to cell division
10. The phenomenon of not allowing the recombinants to escape into the environment is termed as __________
a) blocking
b) termination
c) disablement
d) inactivation
11. Which organism has the highest number of vectors?
a) Yeast
b) Mammalian cells
c) E.coli
d) Fungi
12. Which is an example of the simplest vector (in terms of size)?
a) 2-micron circle
b) Bacteriophage
c) Plasmid
d) YAC
13. Bolivar and Rodriguez constructed which vector?
a) Yip7
b) R6-5
c) pUC8
d) Pbr322
14. Which of the following properties is not taken into account while looking for a suitable vector?
a) Size
b) Parent organism
c) Restriction site
d) Origin of replication
15. Which antibiotic resistance is present in pBR322?
a) Ampicillin
b) Kanamycin
c) Lactase
d) Gentamycin
16. Size of Pbr322 is _______
a) 100 kb
b) 10 kb
c) 4.3 kb
d) 1 kb
17. How many sets of antibiotic resistance does the plasmid Pbr322 carry?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
18. pBR327 is a conjugative plasmid.
a) True
b) False
19. Which selection system is used in the Puc8 plasmid?
a) Antibiotic selection
b) Lactose selection
c) Auxotrophic mutant selection
d) Plaque morphology selection
20. What is the copy number of the pUC8 plasmid vector?
a) 5-10
b) 50-100
c) 100-200
d) 500-700
21. What additional feature does Pgem3Z has which makes it a suitable vector for in vitro transcription of cloned genes?
a) Unique Ori
b) Promoters
c) Clustered cloning sites
d) LacZ’ gene
Buy:- Click here
22. The size of M13 phage vector is _________
a) 3 kb
b) 6.4 kb
c) 15.4 kb
d) 20.4 kb
23. There is a sequence region in M13 where the foreign DNA can be inserted. What is this sequence called?
a) Inverted repeat
b) Palindromic
c) Intergenic
d) Interstitial
24. The M13mp1 contains __________
a) LacZ’ gene
b) Ampicillin Resistance gene
c) Restriction sites
d) Tetracycline resistance gene
25. The M13mp2 consists ________ restriction site.
a) BamHI
b) AluI
c) PvuII
d) EcoRI
26. Which of the following refers to the inactivation of Insertional inactivation?
a) Host
b) Gene of Interest
c) Gene of the vector
d) Gene of the host
27. BamHI cuts the Pbr322 at just one position, within the cluster of genes that code for resistance to ___________
a) Tetracycline
b) Ampicillin
c) Kanamycin
d) Gentamycin
28. On a medium containing ampicillin, when pBR322 recombinants were plated. Which of the following will not be able to grow?
a) pBR322 containing gene of interest
b) self-ligated Pbr22
c) non-transformants
d) transformed cells
29. Which of the following techniques is used in recombinant identification?
a) Ligation
b) Isolation
c) Replica plating
d) Restriction digestion
30. lacZ’ gene present in a Puc series plasmid codes for which of the enzyme?
a) Beta-galactosidase
b) Lactase
c) Amylase
d) Nuclease
31. Beta-galactosidase is one of a series of enzymes involved in the breakdown of lactose to glucose plus galactose. It is normally coded by the gene lacZ, which resides on the E.Coli chromosome.
a) True
b) False
32. In screening for Puc8 recombinants, which color colonies will be the desired recombinants?
a) Blue
b) Colorless
c) White
d) Yellowish
33. What is the compound X-gal?
a) Plasmid
b) Lactose analog
c) Antibiotic
d) Inducer
34. What is isopropylthiogalactoside?
a) Plasmid of pUC series
b) E.coli strain
c) Antibiotic
d) Inducer
35. Which of the following selection step does not occur in the lac selection system?
a) Ampicillin resistance
b) X-gal plating
c) Agar plating
d) Replica plating
36. What is an additional feature of M13mp7?
a) 2 antibiotic resistance genes
b) Bigger size
c) Multiple cloning sites
d) Smaller size
37. What is a phagemid?
a) A hybrid vector
b) Phage vector
c) Plasmid vector
d) Viral vector
38. What does the M13 fragment in a phagemid contain?
a) BamHI restriction site
b) Signal sequences
c) Origin of replication
d) Promoter sequence
39. Why is a helper phage needed when cloning experiments in which a hybrid vector such as Pembl8 is done?
a) Efficient insertion
b) Attachment to host
c) To provide replicative enzymes
d) Stable transformation
40. How can the recombinants of phagemid vector Pembl8 be identified?
a) Agar plating
b) Agar + Antibiotic
c) Agar + X-gal
d) Minimal media plating
41. What is the size of fragments that can be obtained by using a phagemid vector?
a) 1 kb
b) 10 kb
c) 1500 bp
d) 50 kb
42. What is the size limit for in vitro packaging of an unmodified lambda vector?
a) 10 kb
b) 52 kb
c) 100 kb
d) 10 bp
43. Which non-essential region of the lambda phage can be deleted without impairing viability?
a) Protein coding
b) Promoter region
c) Integration and excision region
d) Terminator region
44. What is the basic difference between a modified (non-essential regions removed) and an unmodified lambda vector?
a) Gene expression increases
b) Stable infection
c) Non-lysogenic cycle
d) Star activity
45. Why is natural selection used to isolate modified lambda that lacks certain restriction sites?
a) Strains that lack sites are known
b) Easier than in vitro mutagenesis
c) There are no restriction sites in lambda
d) Natural selection is less time consuming
46. Why is natural selection used to isolate modified lambda that lacks certain restriction sites?
a) Strains that lack sites are known
b) Easier than in vitro mutagenesis
c) There are no restriction sites in lambda
d) Natural selection is less time consuming
47. Insertion and replacement vectors are modified vectors of which of the following?
a) Plasmid
b) Lambda phage
c) M13 phage
d) Yeast artificial chromosome
48. What type of vector is the lambda-gt10?
a) Insertion vector
b) Replacement vector
c) Hybrid vector
d) Unmodified lambda vector
49. Which property is not associated with a lambda insertion vector?
a) Non-essential region removed
b) Two vector arms ligated together
c) At least one restriction site is present
d) Expression of the gene can be obtained
50. How can the identification of recombinants of lambda-gt10 vector be done?
a) Ampicillin resistance
b) Lac selection
c) cI gene insertional inactivation
d) Agar and X-gal plating
51. Lambda-ZAPII can carry what size of the foreign DNA?
a) 1 kb
b) 5 kb
c) 10 kb
d) 15 kb
52. How can lambda-ZAPII recombinants be distinguished?
a) Agar + ampicillin plating
b) Agar + tetracycline plating
c) Plaque morphology analysis
d) Agar + X-gal plating
53. What is a “stuffer fragment” in cloning jargon?
a) A replaceable fragment
b) Promoter region
c) Ribosomal binding site
d) Clustered with restriction sites
54. What is not true in regard to a lambda replacement vector?
a) It contains two/more restriction sites
b) Contains stuffer fragment
c) Recombinant selection by size
d) Carries smaller DNA than insertion vectors
55. How can recombinant selection for lambda replacement vectors be done?
a) In vitro packaging
b) cI gene inactivation
c) Lac selection
d) Antibiotic resistance
56. Lambda-EMBL4 is an example of _________
a) Insertion vector
b) Replacement vector
c) Hybrid vector
d) Mammalian vector
57. Recombinant selection of lambda-EMBL4 can be done on the basis of Spi phenotype.
a) True
b) False
58. What is a prerequisite for cloning experiments with lambda insertion or replacement vectors?
a) Circular form of the vector
b) Small size
c) Helper phage integration
d) Two-phage system
59. What are cosmid vectors?
a) Hybrid between phage and plasmid
b) Hybrid between M13 and lambda phage
c) Modified lambda vector
d) Modified M13 vector
60. What is the basis of cosmid construction?
a) Origin of replication is vital
b) Only cos sites are required for packaging
c) Promoter sequences for expression
d) Different restriction sites
61. Which of the following assertions is true in regard to a cosmid vector?
a) No plaques are produced
b) Lac-selection system is used
c) It can carry small DNA fragments
d) Origin of replication is taken from lambda
62. What digestion pattern of the restriction endonucleases is followed while constructing recombinant molecule using a cosmid?
a) Partial digestion
b) Complete digestion
c) Single endonuclease digestion
d) Double endonuclease digestion
63. If cosmid vector infected cells are grown on an agar plate containing antibiotic, what type of colonies will grow?
a) Non-recombinants
b) Recombinants
c) Both non-recombinants and recombinants
d) Cells with self-ligated vectors
64. Which vectors carry the longest foreign DNA fragments?
a) M13 based vectors
b) Lambda based vectors
c) Plasmids
d) Hybrid vectors
65. What does an E.Coli genomic library contain?
a) Recombinant clones of genes
b) Genes in E.coli genome
c) Expressed genes
d) Protein products
66. Which vectors are mostly used for creating genomic libraries?
a) Lambda phage vectors
b) M13 phage vectors
c) Plasmid vectors
d) Cosmid vectors
67. What is the main use of Bacterial Artificial Chromosome (BAC) vectors?
a) E.coli protein expression
b) Human genomic library construction
c) E.coli genomic library construction
d) Stable transfection
68. BAC vectors are based on _________ plasmid.
a) R
b) F
c) Col
d) Trp
69. What are PACs?
a) Low capacity phage vector
b) High capacity phage vector
c) Plasmid vector
d) Phagemid vector
70. Which type of vector is P1?
a) Phage
b) Plasmid
c) Cosmid
d) Phagemid
71. Pjb8 is an example of __________ vector.
a) Cosmid
b) Phagemid
c) Hybrid
d) M13 bacteriophage
72. To which organism does bacteriophage lambda belong?
a) Pseudomonas
b) Bacillus subtilis
c) Escherichia coli
d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
73. What is the confirmation of lambda phage DNA when it is isolated from the phage particle?
a) Supercoiled
b) Open circular
c) Linear
d) Linear duplex
74. Who determined the sequence of Lambda phage?
a) Sanger
b) Maxam Gilbert
c) Ramachandran
d) John Williams
75. What form does the phage DNA take when it is injected into the host?
a) Linear
b) Circular
c) Double helical
d) Supercoiled
76. Which region of the phage genome is not essential for growth?
a) Between N and Q genes
b) Cohesive sites
c) Recombination and lysogenization
d) Host lysis
77. What is the role of the phage cI gene?
a) Host lysis
b) Dormancy and immunity
c) Gene regulation
d) Temperature regulation
78. What is the function of early gene regulation?
a) Replication
b) Recombination
c) Lytic cycle
d) Cohesive site formation
79. What is the function of late gene regulation?
a) Packaging DNA
b) Host lysis
c) Host infection
d) Replication
80. The cI gene is of what type?
a) Inducer
b) Promoter
c) Repressor
d) Silent gene
81. What is the role of N and Q genes?
a) Positive regulation
b) Negative regulation
c) Transcription initiation
d) Transcription termination
82. When was bacteriophage discovered?
a) 1915-1917
b) 1980
c) 1819-1821
d) 2000
83. Insertional and replacement vectors are types of ________ vector.
a) Lambda
b) M13
c) Yeast
d) BAC
84. Multiple target sites in which foreign DNA can be inserted are present in an Insertion vector.
a) True
b) False
85. What modifications are done to the phage vector for creating derivative vectors?
a) Origin replacement
b) Deletions
c) Antibiotic resistance incorporated
d) Hybridization
86. The maximum capacity of the phage lambda vector is attained by _______ vectors.
a) Insertion
b) Replacement
c) Plasmid
d) Yeast
87. The shortest lambda DNA molecules that produce plaques are _______ deleted.
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 2%
d) 15%
88. Why is 64-69% of the genomic region included in the stuffer fragment of replacement vectors?
a) Spi positive selection
b) Spi negative selection
c) Antibiotic selection
d) Replication
89. What is the size of foreign DNA that can be inserted in an insertion vector?
a) 10 kb
b) 100kb
c) 20 kb
d) 15 kb
90. How can the unwanted restriction sites be removed?
a) Restriction
b) Digestion
c) Ligation
d) Mutagenesis
91. The negative transcriptional vector in an insertion or replacement vector is __________
a) Ampicillin resistance
b) cI gene product
c) Tetracycline resistance
d) Kanamycin resistance
92. What are Hfl strains?
a) Morphology based strains
b) Homology based strains
c) Frequency-based strains
d) Resistance based strains
93. Why is a eukaryotic cloning vector required?
a) Cloning ease
b) Variety
c) Availability
d) Large scale production
94. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is an example of _________
a) Fungi
b) Yeast
c) Bacteria
d) Insect
95. Plasmids are present in eukaryotes.
a) True
b) False
96. The 2 micrometer circle found in yeast is a __________
a) Phage
b) Plasmid
c) Virus
d) Gene product
97. What is the size of 2-micrometer circle?
a) 1 kb
b) 6 kb
c) 11 kb
d) 22 kb
98. What are REP1 and REP2 genes in the plasmid used for?
a) Origin
b) Replication
c) Expression
d) Host lysis
99. Which selection system is used in a yeast plasmid recombinant?
a) Antibiotic
b) Lac
c) Auxotrophic mutant
d) cI gene
100. What is an auxotrophic mutant?
a) Defective plasmid
b) Transformed cell
c) Host cell
d) Yeast cell
101. What does the gene LEU2 code for?
a) Lactose
b) Leucine
c) Dehydrogenase
d) Hydrogenase
102. On which medium are yeast plasmids transformed cells plated?
a) Luria Broth
b) Agar
c) Minimal
d) Nutrient
103. What are YEps?
a) Mutated yeast plasmids
b) Hybrid of yeast and bacteria
c) Yeast episomal plasmids
d) Transformed cells
104. Yep13 is an example of _______
a) Yeast episomal plasmid
b) Host bacterium
c) Yeast integrative plasmid
d) Bacterial plasmid
105. What is a shuttle vector?
a) Hybrid vector
b) Mutated yeast plasmid
c) A vector that can be used with two/more systems
d) The transformed cell is further used for transformation
106. Yep13 is a shuttle vector.
a) True
b) False
107. For which of the following plasmids purification of a recombinant molecule from the transformed cell can be difficult?
a) Episomal plasmids
b) Integrative plasmids
c) Bacterial plasmid
d) All plasmids
108. What does the word episomal in YEps indicate?
a) Expression
b) Replication
c) Independent replication
d) Mutation
109. Why does the integration of the YEp vector occur in a yeast chromosome?
a) Recombination
b) Smaller size
c) Similarity with host
d) Lytic cycle
110. What is the role of homologous recombination in vector infection?
a) Integration
b) Host recognition
c) Duplication
d) Packaging
111. In homologous recombination what part of the plasmid gets integrated into the host?
a) Origin part
b) Cos sites
c) Entire plasmid
d) Gene of interest
112. What does “I” in Yips vectors stand for?
a) Infected
b) Integrative
c) Insertional
d) Initiation
113. Which gene does Yip5 carry?
a) LEU2
b) URA3
c) cI
d) Amp
114. What is the role of the decarboxylase enzyme encoded by the URA3 gene?
a) Nucleotide catalysis
b) Uracil formation
c) Leucine formation
d) Lactose breakdown
115. A Yeast integrative plasmid cannot replicate as a plasmid inside the host?
a) True
b) False
116. What does “R” in the YRP vector stand for?
a) Recombination
b) Replicative
c) Replication
d) Reverse combining
117. TRP1 gene is contained in which of the following?
a) YRP7
b) YIP2
c) YRP3
d) YIP3
118. What is the function of the TRP1 gene?
a) Tryptophan biosynthesis
b) Tyrosine biosynthesis
c) Tetracycline biosynthesis
d) Termination
119. What does the yeast DNA fragment present in YRP7 consist of?
a) TRP1 and origin
b) TRP1 and gene of interest
c) TRP1 and cos sites
d) TRP1 and codons
120. Transformation frequency decides _________
a) Choice of host
b) Choice of vector
c) Choice of medium
d) Choice of temperature
121. Why is a high transformation frequency needed?
a) Large recombinants
b) Ease of infection
c) Host suitability
d) Easy scaleup
122. Which of the following have the highest transformation efficiency?
a) YIP
b) YEP
c) YRP
d) YAC
123. The maximum size of foreign DNA that can be inserted into a replacement vector is
25-30 kb
18-20 kb
20-25 kb
40-50 kb
124. Which of the following is not true about phagemid?
Contain functional origin of the plasmid and lambda phage
It Maybe propagated as a plasmid or as a phage inappropriate strain
Contain lambda att site
Can only be propagated as a phage
125. pBR 322 has which of the following selection marker?
Amp ®
Tet ®
Both a and b
Kan ®
126. The plasmid can be considered as a suitable cloning vector if
It can be readily isolated from the cells
It possesses a single restriction site for one or more restriction enzymes
Insertion of foreign DNA does not alter its replication properties
All of the above
127. The difference between lambda gt 10 and lambda gt 11 vectors is that
Lamda gt 11 is an expression vector
Lamda gt 10 is an expression vector
Lamda gt 10 is a replacement vector
Lamda gt 11 is a replacement vector
128. The vectors commonly used for sequencing the Human genome
YAC ( yeast artificial chromosome)
Plasmid
CMV Vectors
M13 Vectors
129. Ti plasmids that are used as a plant vector is obtained from
Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Agrobacterium rhizhogenes
Agrobacterium radiobactor
Thermus aquatics
130. Autonomously replicating sequences ( ARS) is a characteristics feature of
Plasmid vectors
Phage vectors
E.coli vectors
Yeast Vectors
Buy: Click here
Answer:-
1) A
2) D
3) B
4) A
5) A
6) B
7) C
8) A
9) B
10) C
11) C
12) C
13) D
14) B
15) A
16) B
17) C
18) B
19) B
20) D
21) B
22) B
23) C
24) A
25) D
26) C
27) A
28) C
29) C
30) A
31) A
32) C
33) B
34) D
35) D
36) C
37) A
38) B
39) C
40) C
41) B
42) B
43) C
44) C
45) A
46) A
47) B
48) A
49) D
50) C
51) C
52) D
53) A
54) D
55) A
56) B
57) A
58) A
59) A
60) B
61) A
62) A
63) B
64) B
65) A
66) A
67) B
68) B
69) B
70) A
71) A
72) C
73) B
74) A
75) B
76) C
77) B
78) C
79) A
80) C
81) A
82) B
83) A
84) B
85) B
86) B
87) B
88) A
89) A
90) D
91) B
92) C
93) D
94) B
95) A
96) B
97) B
98) B
99) C
100) C
101) C
102) C
103) C
104) A
105) C
106) A
107) B
108) C
109) A
110) A
111) C
112) B
113) B
114) A
115) A
116) B
117) A
118) A
119) A
120) B
121) A
122) B
123) C
124) D
125) C
126) D
127) A
128) A
129) A
130) D
No comments:
Post a Comment
problem related comment