Hello friends, in today's blog, we see Life Science Paper-2024 ( paper- A ) with questions and answers. so you will able to understand the question pattern.
1. Hydrogen bonds are present in water structure. Presence of hydrogen bonds gives a characteristic property to water, which is :
(A) High melting and high boiling points
(B) High melting and low boiling points
(C) Low melting and high boiling points
(D) Low melting and low boiling points
2. Which of the following membrane associated process involves the step of Clathrin coated vesicle formation during its mechanism ?
(A) Phagocytosis
(B) Amino acid uptake
(C) Receptor mediated endocytosis
(D) Calcium uptake
3. Which one of the following is not a part of cell theory ?
(A) Organism(s) are made up of cell(s)
(B) Cells are functional unit(s) of multicellular organisms
(C) Cells in a multicellular organism arise from preexisting cells
(D) Cells in a multicellular organism are derived from noncells
4. Assembly of cytoplasmic microtubule from the tubulin dimers is inhibited if the cell is treated
with ..................
(A) Streptomycin
(B) Calmodulin
(C) Colchicine
(D) Carbenicillin
5. Prokaryotes may be characterized by :
(A) Presence of nucleus or nucleoid
(B) Absence of DNA
(C) Absence of membrane surrounding organells
(D) Presence of membrane around RNA
6. The following are the characteristics of which type of transposable element ?
Simplest transposable element found in bacteria that encode transposase, with less than 5 kb size and with terminal inverted repeats that can transfer DNA directly is :
(A) Composite transposons
(B) Retrotransposons
(C) IS element
(D) Tn3-like elements
7. The first chromosomal linkage map for five genes on the X chromosome of Drosophilla was constructed by :
(A) S. Benzer
(B) T.H. Morgan
(C) A.H. Sturtevant
(D) G.J. Mendel
8. A chromosomal site at which a group of genes affecting quantitative traits
are located is called as :
(A) Qualitative trait locus
(B) Quantitative trait locus
(C) Multiple allele locus
(D) Dominant locus
9. In prion disease, classically, the :
(A) Liver becomes excessively enlarged
(B) Liver becomes sponge like
(C) Brain ventricles are squeezed
(D) Brain becomes sponge like
10. Which one of the following is not a diversity index of living organism ?
(A) Shannon index
(B) Simpson index
(C) Berger-Parker index
(D) MPN index
11. Articulation of both the jaws with skull is termed as Jaw suspension. One of the following types is
observed in the teleost fishes :
(A) Craniostylic
(B) Autostylic
(C) Holostylic
(D) Hyostylic
12. In the representatives of order Cestoda, the mature proglottids get separated from main body by a process known as :
(A) Apoptosis
(B) Apolysis
(C) Homolysis
(D) Genolysis
13. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to :
(A) Classification of species based on fossil record
(B) A list of taxonomists worked on taxonomy of a species
(C) A group of taxonomists who decide nomenclature of animals and plants
(D) Stepswise arrangement of all categories for classification of animals and plants
14. Mycoplasmas, rickettsiae, and chlamydiae are :
(A) Types of fungi
(B) Small bacteria
(C) Species of protozoa
(D) Forms of viruses
15. When biological oxygen demand becomes very high ?
(A) The water becomes suitable for growth of aerobic microbes
(B) The amount of dissolved oxygen increases
(C) The water becomes anaerobic
(D) Both concentration of microbes and dissolved oxygen decreases
16. Which one of the following extra embryonic membrane found as unique feature in terrestrial
vertebrates only ?
(A) Yolk sac
(B) Chorion
(C) Allantois
(D) Amnion
17. Since humans are having such a notable impact on the Earth and its life—a new, youngest epoch of the quaternary period is termed as :
(A) The Holocene
(B) The Paleocene
(C) The Anthropocene
(D) The Eocene
18. What largest bacterium of > 600 µm size is known to inhabit the gut of
Acantharus nigrofuscus ?
(A) Vibrio fischeri
(B) Spirillum volutans
(C) Epulopiscium fishelsoni
(D) Borrelia burgdorferi
19. Heliophytes are the plants :
(A) Growing under shade
(B) Growing under direct sunlight
(C) Growing under waterlogged conditions
(D) Growing under saline conditions
20. The largest ‘carbon sink’ on the earth is :
(A) Forests
(B) Soils
(C) Oceans
(D) Animals
21. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the
rules of nomenclature ?
(A) The first word represents genus and second is a specific epithet
(B) The names are written in Latin and italicised
(C) Biological names can be written in any language
(D) When written by hand, names are to be underlined
22. Which among the following is functionally more diverse ?
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Protein
(D) Lipid
23. River blindness disease occurs due to :
(A) Loa loa
(B) Mansonella perstans
(C) Mansonella streptocerca
(D) Onchocerca volvulus
24. Cridu chat syndrome is caused due to which of the following ?
(A) Deletion of short arm of chromosome no. 5
(B) Translocation of long arm of chromosome no. 5
(C) Duplication of short arm of chromosome no. 5
(D) Inversion of short arm of chromosome no. 5
25. If the genotypes of a husband and a wife are IAIB, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible among the blood types of their children.
(A) 2 genotypes : 3 phenotypes
(B) 3 genotypes : 4 phenotypes
(C) 4 genotypes : 3 phenotypes
(D) 4 genotypes : 4 phenotypes
26. The maternal characteristics are inherited through cytoplasmic inheritance also. One of the following
organell is involved in :
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgi body
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
27. Trisomy of chromosome no. 21 is :
(A) Edwards syndrome
(B) Klinefelter syndrome
(C) Down syndrome
(D) Patau syndrome
28. A bacterial strain that is lys+ his+val+ is used as a donor, and another strain that is lys– his– val– as the recipient for setting up an experiment on transformation. Initial transformants were isolated on a minimal medium with supplemented with lysine and valine. Which of the following maximum genotypes will grow on this medium ?
(A) lys– his+ val+; lys+ his+ val–; lys+his+ val+; lys– his+ val–
(B) lys+ his+ val+; lys– his– val+
(C) lys– his– val– only
(D) lys+ his– val+ only
29. In addition to serving as the building blocks for nucleic acid, nucleotides have many functions.
Which of the following is not a function of a nucleotide ?
(A) They work as carriers of energy
(B) They are serving as secondary messengers in cells
(C) They are the components of coenzymes
(D) They provide electrons to the ETC
30. A DNA sample contains 30% adenine on molar basis. What will be the percentage of cytosine ?
(A) 30%
(B) 20%
(C) 40%
(D) 60%
31. Which of the following would contribute to intrinsic fluorescence
in a protein ?
(A) Aromatic amino acids
(B) Charged amino acids
(C) Branched chain amino acids
(D) Disulfide bonds
32. The screw sense of DNA can be right handed or left handed. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the screw sense of A, B and Z type of DNA ?
(A) A and Z both right handed
(B) A and B both right handed
(C) A left handed and B right handed
(D) A right handed and B left handed
33. Which chiral angle in the peptide backbone does not undergo
rotation ?
(A) φ(Phi)
(B) Ψ (Psi)
(C) χ (Chi)
(D) ω (Omega)
34. Efficiency of enzyme can be better measured in terms of :
(A) Km
(B) Km/Vmax
(C) Kcat
(D) Kcat/Km
35. What is the resultant pH of a phosphate buffer made by mixing 0.2 M NaH2PO4 and 0.2 M Na2HPO4 ? (pKa = 6.86)
(A) 5.86
(B) 6.86
(C) 7.86
(D) 7.00
36. A protein mixture contains three polypeptides A, B and C, whose masses are 63, 28 and 79 kDa with pI values of 6.5, 7.0 and 8.0, respectively, were subjected to standard reducing SDS-PAGE. The order of their separation from top to bottom would be :
(A) A, B and C
(B) C, B and A
(C) A, C and B
(D) C, A and B
37. A geographically variable species often divided into many subspecies is referred to as ......................
(A) Monotypic species
(B) Sister species
(C) Sibling species
(D) Polytypic species
38. First fossil record of vascular plants appeared in the .................. period.
(A) Silurian
(B) Jurassic
(C) Triassic
(D) Cambrian
39. Inclusive fitness refers to .............
(A) Reproductive success of an individual
(B) Reproductive success of an individual along with its neighbour’s reproductive success
(C) Reproductive success of an individual along with its relatives’ reproductive success
(D) Reproductive success of an individual and its partners
40. In a classical experiment, a standard is usesd to :
(A) Add background noise
(B) Record the absolute value of a signal
(C) Compare and eliminate nonspecific background noise
(D) Record the non-specific error in the experiment
41. Why sexual selection can lead to extreme phenotypes ?
(A) Because the extreme phenotype incurs lower costs than the mean train in the population
(B) Because the partner quickly learns and favours new images
(C) Because a positive feedback exists between the gene favouring the trait and the gene coding for it
(D) Because a negative feedback exists between the trait and the risk of predation
42. Sarich and Wilson (1967) demonstrated that human, Gorilla and Chimpanzee were genetically
equidistant and distinct for Orangutan and the divergence time is approximately :
(A) 30 mya
(B) 05 mya
(C) 10 mya
(D) 100 mya
43. Beaker ‘A’ has 100 ml of some fluid at 80°C. Beaker B contains the some fluid 200 ml at 20ºC. If both the fluids are mixed, what would be the temperature of the resultant mixture ?
(A) 25ºC
(B) 65ºC
(C) 40ºC
(D) 50ºC
44. With the advent of Remote Sensing and Geographical Information System, the city planners have begun to use the Indian satellite data. Which one of the following satellite data are useful for such tasks ?
(A) CARTOSAT
(B) LANDSAT
(C) OCEANSAT
(D) RESOURCESAT
45. Which of the following statements is not true about phase contract microscopy ?
(A) It is a modified version of the bright field microscope that is fitted with a condenser (annular ring) and objective (phase plate)
(B) It uses a special condenser and objective that accentuate small differences in the refractive
index of various structures within the organism
(C) It can be used to observe living cells in their natural state
(D) It uses laser light to obtain focal level sections through a specimen
46. What will be the radioactivity of 125I labelled 2 mCi thyroxine after 4 generations (t½ = 60 days) :
(A) 0.25 mCi
(B) 0.125 mCi
(C) 0.125 μCi
(D) 1 mCi
47. Among the different types of phytoremediation .............. is the process in which plants limit
contaminated soil movement and migration.
(A) Phytostabilization
(B) Phytotransformation
(C) Phytodegradation
(D) Phytoextraction
48. Which of the following proteins helps to maintain and stabilizes protein tertiary structure during
temperature stress in plants ?
(A) Defensins
(B) Thionins
(C) Late embryogenesis abundant (LEA)
(D) Osmotin
49. Enzyme labelled antibodies are not generally used for which of the following techniques ?
(A) FACS
(B) Immunohistochemistry
(C) ELISA
(D) Western blot
50. In watermelons, to induce seedlessness in triploid population, which of the following strategies is
useful ?
(A) Self-pollinate resistant triploids
(B) Cross unrelated triploids
(C) Select for unreduced gametes in triploids
(D) Cross tetraploids with diploids to produce triploids
51. Amplification of a DNA fragment by PLR requires primers. Which of the following statements
are correct for primers ?
(i) Primers with hairpin structure formation are not desirable
(ii) Primer sequence should not have long runs (>3) of a single nucleotide
(iii) GC content of the primer should be less than 20%
(iv) Both the forward and reverse primers must have high percentage of base complementarities
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
52. When subcultured into fresh medium, a bacterium grows with a lag phase of 2 hours followed by log phase and a stationary phase. If the bacterium was treated with ethidium bromide for 3 hours in all the phases of growth to cure a plasmid, it is more likely to lose the plasmid in :
(A) Early stationary phase
(B) Late stationary phase
(C) Logarithmic phase
(D) Lag phase
53. The free hydroxyl groups present on either end of chemically synthesized. Oligonucleotides are 5'–phosphorylated with ATP by the enzyme :
(A) Polynucleotide phosphatase
(B) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
(C) Polynucleotide ATPase
(D) Polynucleotide kinase
54. Which one of the following is not a fluorophore ?
(A) Acridine orange
(B) Acrylamide
(C) Quinacrine
(D) Ethidium bromide
55. Which of the following best describes principle of western blotting technique ?
(A) A means of separation of restriction fragments on the basis of size
(B) It is based on attraction to a specific chemical group
(C) The proteins have a net charge zero at a particular pH
(D) It is an immunoassay technique preceded by electrophoresis
56. Which of the following is resulted due to photorespiration reaction catalysed by oxygenase activity of rubisco ?
(A) 3-phosphoglycerate only
(B) 2-phosphoglycolate only
(C) Fructose 6-phosphate
(D) 3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycolate
57. Mutation in ACC synthase enzyme will inhibit synthesis of ................
(A) Gibberellins
(B) Salicyclic acid
(C) Ethylene
(D) Auxin
58. Which of the following phytohormone accumulates during Systemic Acquired Resistance (SAR) in
plants ?
(A) Salicylic acid
(B) Jasmonic acid
(C) Abscisic acid
(D) Ethylene
59. The hormone auxin was first discovered in :
(A) Mustard
(B) Pea
(C) Oats
(D) Rice
60. How many times more energy gained in aerobi crespirati on over anaerobic respiration ?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 32
61. Which of the following is NOT involved in electron transport during Photosystem I and II ?
(A) Ferredoxin
(B) Plastocyanin
(C) Cytochrome b6f complex
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
62. The treatment of abscisic acid is associated with .....................
(A) Internode elongation
(B) Expansion of lead area
(C) Closure of stomata
(D) Axillary root elongation
63. Action potential is generated due to :
(A) Influx of Na+ and efflux of K+
(B) Influx of Ca2+ and efflux of K+
(C) Influx of Na+ and efflux of Ca2+
(D) Influx of K+ and efflux of Na+
64. Hookworm infection can lead to deficiency of :
(A) Vitamin B12
(B) Iron
(C) Vitamin B6
(D) Folic acid
65. What kind of microbes grow best at higher CO2 tension (~ 10%) than are normally present in the atmosphere ?
(A) Microaerophilic microorganisms
(B) Capnophilic microorganisms
(C) Aerotolerant anaerobic microorganisms
(D) Obligate anaerobic microorganisms
66. Which free living microorganisms occupy a niche to feed primarily on organic detritus from dead
organisms and unable to adapt to the body of live host ?
(A) Obligate saprobic microorganisms
(B) Parasitic microorganisms
(C) Facultative parasitic microorganisms
(D) Auxotrophic microorganisms
67. The DNA of each chromosome occupies a defined volume of the nucleus and only overlaps with its immediate neighbours is called as :
(A) Chromosome territories
(B) Nuclear scaffolds
(C) Nucleosome assembly
(D) Chromatin
68. Amphibians contain 30X more DNA than human beings. However human beings are more complex
than amphibians. This lack of correlation is called as :
(A) Species specificity
(B) C-value paradox
(C) D-value paradox
(D) P-value paradox
69. Which one of the following is not true in relation to eukaryotic gene expression ?
(A) RNA POl I synthesizes pre-_RNA
(B) RNA POl II synthesizes _RNA
(C) RNA POl III synthesizes tRNA
(D) All three polymerase contains _', _, _ and _ subunits
70. The triple helix domain of collagen consists of repeats of the X-Y-Z amino acids. The amino acid present at ‘X’ position is required in every third position in order for the polypeptide chain is :
(A) Lysine
(B) Proline
(C) Hydroxy proline
(D) Glycine
71. Which DNA binding domain is present in steroid hormone receptors family of ligand inducible
transcription factors ?
(A) Helix-loop-helix
(B) Zinc fingers
(C) Helix-turn-helix
(D) Leucine zipper
72. Which of the following elongation factor is called as translocase ?
(A) EF-G
(B) EF-2
(C) EF-G and EF-2
(D) EF-Tu and EF-Ts
73. Which of the following posttranslational modification is not related with epigenetic regulation ?
(A) Histone acetylation
(B) Sumoylation
(C) Ubiquitination
(D) DNA methylation
74. The disease which arises because of aberrant splicing is :
(A) Huntington’s disease
(B) Cystic fibrosis
(C) Sickle cell anemia
(D) Thalassemia
75. Identify the enzymes involved in DNA replication for their function :
(Enzyme)
(P) DNA polymerase I
(Q) Primase
(R) Helicase
(S) Gyrase
(Funtion)
(1) Unzipping the DNA helix
(2) Supercoiling of DNA
(3) Remove primer and close gaps
(4) Synthesize RNA primer
(A) (P)-(2),(Q)-(3),(R)-(4),(S)-(1)
(B) (P)-(3),(Q)-(4),(R)-(1),(S)-(2)
(C) (P)-(1),(Q)-(4),(R)-(2),(S)-(3)
(D) (P)-(3),(Q)-(1),(R)-(2),(S)-(4)
76. (I) The 3' to 5' exonuclease activity of eukaryotic DNA polymerase operates in reverse direction of
DNA synthesis and participate in fidelity of replication.
(II) The ability of DNA polymerase to extend a primer only in 5' to 3' direction appears to make replication a complicated process, it is necessary for proofreading of duplicated DNA.
Choose the correct answer :
(A) (I) is correct, (II) is wrong
(B) (II) is correct, (I) is wrong
(C) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(D) Both (I) and (II) are wrong
77. Which of the following is a wrong statement in SOS repair system ?
(A) Lex A shows autorepression of lex A
(B) Lex A shows repression of rec A
(C) Negative regulation of Lex A blocks the SOS repair
(D) Rec A shows negative regulation of lex A
78. Which of the following statements about apoptosis is fasle ?
(A) Cell shrinks
(B) Chromatin condenses
(C) Cell contents are leaked
(D) Apoptotic bodies are formed, which are phagocytosed by macrophages
79. Which of the following signallingn molecules plays a key role in the patterning of neural tube along its anterior-posterior axis ?
(A) Wnt4
(B) BMP4
(C) FGF4
(D) Retinoic acid
80. If you compare the B cell epitope against T cell epitope :
(A) B cell epitopes are based more on primary sequence of protein antigen
(B) B cell epitopes are based more on nature conformation of protein antigen
(C) B cell epitopes are based more on presentation of antigen by MHC molecule
(D) B cell epitopes are of continuous epitopes than the B cell epitope
81. Mark the correct statement for antigenicity of molecule :
(A) Antigenicity is the ability of the molecule to provocate immune response in the body
(B) Antigenicity refers to the binding ability of Antibody to its antigen
(C) Antigenicity and immunogenicity are synonyms
(D) All antigens are immunogens
82. Which of the following molecules acts as a general adhesive connecting one cell to another and
cells to other substrates ?
(A) Fibronectin
(B) Heparin sulphate
(C) Collagen
(D) Laminin
83. Formation and migration of epiblast as a sheet of cells during gastrulation in zebra fish requires
the expression of ....................
(A) P-cadherins
(B) R-cadherins
(C) N-cadherins
(D) E-cadherins
84. Which of the following groups of transcription factors (TFs) is responsible for maintaining the pluripotency of stem cells ?
(A) Oct 4, Nanog and Stat 3
(B) Oct 4, Nanog and SOX 2
(C) Eomesodermin, Cdx 2 and SOX 2
(D) Cdx 2, Nanog and SOX 2
85. Yersinia pestis is the causative agent for ................
(A) Gas gangrene
(B) Tularemia
(C) Lyme disease
(D) Plague
86. Pseudohermaphroditism is a condition in which the individual is insensitive to ....................
(A) Androgen
(B) Estrogen
(C) Progesterone
(D) Corticosterone
87. In plants, when the apical cell of the 2-celled pro-embryo divides longitudinally and further the basal
cell plays only a minor role or none in the development of the embryo proper then the embryo is ...........
type.
(A) Asterad
(B) Onagrad
(C) Solanad
(D) Chenopodial
88. Which of the following is necessary for the development of epididymis in mammals ?
(A) Dihydrotestosterone
(B) Methyl testosterone
(C) Testosterone
(D) Androsterone
89. The mid-blastula transition is the point in the development when ..........
(A) Translation of maternal mRNA is initiated
(B) Cell determination is fixed
(C) Cell-division in the zygote begins
(D) Transcription of zygotic genes begins
90. In the chick limb, the signal for condensation of mesenchymal cells to give rise to cartilage comes from the appearance of :
(A) N-cadherins
(B) E-cadherins
(C) C-cadherins
(D) B-cadherins
91. Which of the following is not a property of stem cells ?
(A) Ability to self-renew
(B) Ability to differentiate into different types of cells
(C) They are unspecialised cells with cell markers
(D) They are actively dividing cells with cell marker changes
92. Which of the following proteins acts as a death receptor that triggers the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis ?
(A) Fas ligand
(B) FADD
(C) FaS
(D) Procaspase 9
93. With reference to normal ECG, the T-wave is :
(A) Negative in all standard bipolar limb leads recording
(B) Caused by repolorization of apex and outer surfaces of the ventricles
(C) Abnormal when normal sequence of depolarization does not occur
(D) Caused by depolarization of the septum and the ventricles
94. Increased muscle activity will increase generation of lactic acid. In this condition, blood coming from the lungs to the muscles, would show :
(A) Increased O2 release from haemoglobin
(B) Decreased O2 release from haemoglobin
(C) No change in O2 release property
(D) Increased degradation of haemoglobin
95. The capability of vertebrate kidney and produce hypertonic urine is a function of :
(A) Reduced filtration at the glomerulus
(B) Increased reabsorption at Bowman’s capsule
(C) The loop of Henle
(D) Addition of waste molecules in the Bowman’s capsule
96. For long distance runner, the muscle needs increased O2 supply. At the muscle, this is formed by :
(A) Increased and frequent muscle contraction
(B) Increased demand made by the muscles
(C) Increased squeezing of the muscles
(D) Increased accumulation of lactic acid causing demand blood pH
97. Which of the following heat shock proteins has both protein folding and degradation activities ?
(A) HSP 60
(B) HSP 70
(C) HSP 90
(D) HSP 100
98. The sequential order of various stages of a fermentation process are :
(A) Fermentation, removal of waste, inoculation, downstream processing
(B) Inoculation, downstream processing, fermentation, removal of waste
(C) Inoculation, fermentation, downstream processing, removal of waste
(D) Removal of waste, inoculation,fermentation, downstream processing
99. Match the following product/process to the microorganism involved :
Product/Process
(L) Biopol
(M) Biopesticide
(N) Bioleaching
(O) Bioremediation of oil
Microorganism
(1) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
(2) Pseudomonas putida
(3) Bacillus sphaericus
(4) Alcaligenes eutrophus
(A) (L)-(1),(M)-(4),(N)-(2),(O)-(3)
(B) (L)-(2),(M)-(1),(N)-(3),(O)-(4)
(C) (L)-(3),(M)-(1),(N)-(2),(O)-(4)
(D) (L)(-4),(M)-(3),(N)-(1),(O)-(2)
100. In golden rice, the gene phytoene desaturase (crtl) was obtained from :
(A) Narcissus species
(B) Erwinia uredovera
(C) Zea mays
(D) Oryza sativa
Answers for above questions:-
QueNo Answer
1) A
2) C
3) D
4) C
5) C
6) C
7) C
8) B
9) D
10) D
11) B
12) B
13) D
14) B
15) C
16) D
17) C
18) C
19) B
20) C
21) C
22) C
23) D
24) A
25) C
26) A
27) C
28) A
29) D
30) B
31) A
32) B
33) D
34) D
35) B
36) D
37) D
38) A
39) C
40) C
QueNo Answer
41) C
42) B
43) C
44) A
45) A
46) B
47) A
48) C
49) A
50) D
51) C
52) C
53) D
54) B
55) D
56) D
57) C
58) A
59) C
60) C
61) D
62) C
63) A
64) B
65) B
66) A
67) A
68) B
69) B
70) D
71) B
72) A
73) C
74) D
75) B
76) C
77) C
78) C
79) A
80) B
QueNo Answer
81) B
82) A
83) D
84) B
85) D
86) A
87) B
88) C
89) D
90) A
91) D
92) C
93) B
94) A
95) C
96) D
97) B
98) C
99) D
100) B
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