Polymerase Chain Reaction MCQs most probably ask in CSIR NET exam.


 Hello friends, in today's article, we see the MCQs on PCR ( Polymerase Chain Reaction ) in genetic engineering. These MCQs most probably ask in CSIR nET Exam.

so let's see one by one

Polymerase Chain Reaction MCQs most probably ask in CSIR NET exam.


Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) MCQs:-





polymerase Chain Reaction MCQs:-



1. The PCR technique was developed by_________.

(a) Kohler

(b) Altman

(c) Milstein

(d) Kary Mullis


2. The polymerase chain reaction is_________.

(a) It is a DNA sequencing technique.

(b) It is a DNA degradation technique

(c) It is a DNA amplification technique

(d) All of the above



3. Which of the following statements is accurate for the PCR – polymerase chain reaction?

(a) Automated PCR machines are called thermal cyclers

(b) A thermostable DNA polymerase is required

(c) Millions to billions of desired DNA copies can be produced from microgram quantities of DNA

(d) All of the above

4. Thermus aquatics is the source of _________.

(a) Vent polymerase

(b) Primase enzyme

(c) Taq polymerase

(d) Both a and c




5. Which of the following is not a thermostable polymerase?

(a) pfu polymerase

(b) Taq polymerase

(c) Vent polymerase

(d) DNA polymerase III



6. Which of the following is the basic requirement of PCR reaction?

(a) Two oligonucleotide primers

(b) DNA segment to be amplified

(c) A heat-stable DNA polymerase

(d) All of the above



7. Why are vent polymerase and Pfu more efficient than the Taq polymerase?

(a) Because of proofreading activity

(b) Because of more efficient polymerase activity

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above



8. Which of the following is the first and the most important step in the polymerase chain reaction?

(a) Annealing

(b) Primer extension

(c) Denaturation

(d) None of the above



9. What is the process of binding of primer to the denatured strand called?

(a) Annealing

(b) Renaturation

(c) Denaturation

(d) None of the above




10. Denaturation is the process of _________.

(a) Heating between 72°C

(b) Heating between 40 to 60°C

(c) Heating between 90 to 98°C

(d) None of the above




11. Which of the following statements are true regarding PCR?

(a) Primer extension occurs at 72°C

(b) Denaturation involves heating at 90 to 98°C

(c) Annealing involves the binding of primer between 40 to 60C°C

(d) All of the above




12. Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from _____________ .

(a) Homo sapiens

(b) Thermus aquaticus

(c) Escherichia coli

(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae



13. At what temperature does denaturation of DNA double helix takes place?

(a) 54°C

(b) 74°C

(c) 94°C

(d) 60°C




14. How many DNA duplexes are obtained from one DNA duplex after 4 cycles of PCR?

(a) 8

(b) 4

(c) 32

(d) 16



15. Primers used for the process of polymerase chain reaction are _________.

(a) Single-stranded RNA oligonucleotide

(b) Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide

(c) Double-stranded RNA oligonucleotide

(d) Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide




16. At what temperature does annealing of DNA and primer take place?

(a) 54°C

(b) 96°C

(c) 42°C

(d) 74°C


17. Reverse transcription PCR uses _________.

(a) RNA as a template to form DNA

(b) mRNA as a template to form cDNA

(c) DNA as a template to form ssDNA

(d) All of the above



18. Which of the following is an application of polymer chain reaction?

(a) Site-directed mutagenesis

(b) Site-specific recombination

(c) Site-specific translocation

(d) All of the above




19. Which of the following is true for asymmetric PCR?

(a) Used for generating double-stranded copies for DNA sequence

(b) Used for generating single-stranded copies for DNA sequence

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above



20. The polymer chain reaction is used for_________.

(a) Amplifying gene of interest

(b) Constructing RAPD maps

(c) Detecting the presence of the transgene in an organism

(d) All of the above


21. What would be the effect on the PCR reaction if any of the following circumstances arose: 1) there are no primers in the reaction, 2) there are no dNTPs in the reaction, 3) there is no Taq polymerase in the reaction?

a) PCR would proceed normally

b) Non-specific PCR of random templates will occur

c) The reaction will cease after a few cycles

d) The PCR reaction will not commence



22. What would the generally expected effect on the PCR reaction be of adjustments that increase the temperature of the annealing phase and the length of the elongation phase?

a) Precision and yield will be reduced

b) Precision will be reduced, but the yield will be increased

c) Precision will be increased, but the yield will be reduced

d) Precision and yield will be increased



23. In principle, what outcome would be least expected in a failure to separate pre-PCR and post-PCR activities?

a) False-positive reactions

b) False-negative reactions

c) Mixed or non-specific PCR products

d) Increased reliability of PCR results



24. What outcome would you least expect if the amount of template in a multiplex PCR fell significantly below the optimal amount?

a) Longer targets amplify poorly or fail to amplify

b) Allelic drop out

c) Increased yield

d) Heterozygote imbalance



25. What would the expected effect be on a PCR reaction if the primers used were slightly shorter and more variable than the intended oligonucleotide sequences?

a) The PCR reaction would not commence

b) The PCR reaction would end after one cycle

c) The reaction would generate a single short PCR product

d) The reaction would yield a mixture of non-specific products




26. Primer used for the process of polymerase chain reaction are ___________

a) Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide

b) Double-stranded DNA oligonucleotide

c) Single-stranded RNA oligonucleotide

d) Double-stranded RNA oligonucleotide


27. Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from _____________

a) Escherichia coli

b) Homo sapiens

c) Thermus aquaticus

d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae




28. How many DNA duplex is obtained from one DNA duplex after 4 cycles of PCR?

a) 4

b) 8

c) 16

d) 32



29. At what temperature do denaturation of DNA double helix takes place?

a) 60˚

b) 54˚

c) 74˚

d) 94˚



30. From a single molecule of DNA, PCR can make___________

a) one additional copy

b) hundreds of copies

c) thousands of copies

d) millions of copies



31. A technique for making millions of copies of a specific region of DNA.

a) DNA ligase

b) restriction enzymes

c) gel electrophoresis

d) polymerase chain reaction



32. For gene transfer to be effective, transforming DNA must be____________

a) incorporated into the bacterial chromosome

b) incorporated into a viral genome

c) free in the bacterial cytoplasm

d) none of the above



33. Double stranded DNA denaturation with specified limit of temperature is__________

a) reversible reaction

b) irreversible reaction

c) either (a) or (b)

d) None of these



34. Which of the following is a mismatch?

a) Polymerase – Taq polymerase

b) Template – double-stranded DNA

c) Primer – oligonucleotide

d) Synthesis – 5’ to 3’ direction




35. PCR can be used in_____________

a) cloning

b) sequencing

c) medical diagnosis and forensic medicine

d) all of the above



36. PCR can be used to amplify a specific fragment of DNA from which of the following?

a) A drop of blood

b) A hair follicle

c) A fragment of skin

d) All of these



37. A PCR cycle consists of____________

a) three steps, denaturation, primer annealing, and elongation

b) three steps, denaturation, initiation, and elongation

c) three steps, primer annealing, elongation, and termination

d) three steps, initiation, elongation, and termination




38. Which of the following statements, if any, is false?


a) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a cell-free method of DNA amplification.

b) PCR is usually used to amplify a specific DNA sequence of interest using oligonucleotide primers that bind to closely flanking sequences.

c) PCR is superior to cell-based DNA cloning for two major reasons: it is much quicker and it allows much greater DNA amplification.

d) PCR requires the use of a heat-stable DNA polymerase to make copies of the template DNA.



39. Which of the following is the first and the most important step in the polymerase chain reaction?

a) Annealing

b) Primer extension

c) Denaturation

d) None of the above



40. Taq polymerase is a ________________________ polymerase.

a) heat-stable

b) buffering

c) denaturant

d) large



41. The temperature cycles in a polymerase chain reaction are in the order __________________

a) 95°, 60°, 72°

b) 60°, 72°, 95°

c) 72°, 60°, 95°

d) 95°, 72°, 60°




42. Which enzyme is active at 72° in the polymerase chain reaction?

a) isomerase

b) exonuclease

c) polymerase

d) endonuclease




43. PCR can generate large amounts of DNA.

a) True

b) False





44. Molecular beacons are short ____________________

a) polysaccharides

b) monosaccharides

c) oligonucleotides

d) phospholipids



45. When was the nucleotide sequence of a viral genome first elucidated?

a) 1977

b) 1988

c) 1999

d) 2002



46. DNA libraries are collection of ______________________

a) ribonucleic acid

b) cloned DNA fragments

c) bacteriophages

d) viral particles



47. The process of introducing DNA into cells is called ____________________

a) blotting

b) conjugation

c) transfection

d) conduction



48. From a single molecule of DNA, PCR can make

a) one additional copy

b) hundreds of copies

c) thousands of copies

d) millions of copies



49. Genomic libraries are made from

a) genomic DNA of an organism

b) genomic RNA of an organism

c) genomic cDNA of an organism

d) genomic mRNA of an organism



50. PCR is used

a) to diagnose genetic diseases

b) to solve crimes

c) to study gene function

d) all of these










Answer:-

1 D

2) C

3) D

4) C

5) D

6) D

7) A

8) C

9) A

10) C

11) D

12) B

13) C

14) D

15) B

16) A

17) B

18) A

19) B

20) D

21) D

22) B

23) D

24) C

25) D

26) A

27) C

28) C

29) D

30) D

31) D

32) A

33) A

34) B

35) D

36) D

37) A

38) C

39) C

40) A

41) A

42) C

43) A

44) C

45) A

46) B

47) C

48) D

49) A

50) D



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