Restriction Enzymes MCQ's probably comes in CSIR NET Entrance Exams.


hello friends, In today's article, we see the most important MCQs of Restriction Enzymes probably come in Exams. so let's start one by one

 Restriction Enzymes MCQs:-

Restriction enzymes mcq's



1. For cloning, restriction enzymes with sticky ends are used for

(a) ease of transformation

(b) easy insertion into plasmids of DNA segments from different sources

(c) easy identification of plasmids with antibiotic resistance

(d) easy identification of plasmids having inserts

 

2. The host controlled restriction is a process associated with

(a) gene of interest

(b) bacteria

(c) plasmid

(d) viruses

 

3. How many bases does the sequence which identifies the restriction enzymes contain?

(a) 1

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 12

 

4. The restriction enzymes bind to and cut the sequences of DNA which usually are

(a) antiparallel

(b) not symmetrical about the midpoint

(c) symmetrical about the midpoint

(d) random sequences

 

5. In bacteria, the restriction phenomena occurs naturally as

(a) bacteria produce enzyme

(b) for survival

(c) for efficient cloning

(d) destruction of DNA of the bacterium

 

6. Restriction enzymes are isolated from

(a) Virus

(b) Fungi

(c) Protozoa

(d) Bacteria


 


7. Joining and cutting DNA are these techniques

(a) DNA synthesis

(b) DNA degradation

(c) DNA manipulation

(d) DNA replication

 

8. For the production of a DNA copy, the enzyme which uses RNA is called

(a) DNA polymerase

(b) RNA polymerase

(c) DNA ligase

(d) reverse transcriptase

 

9. This was the first restriction endonuclease that was discovered

(a) BamHI

(b) EcoRI

(c) HindIII

(d) HindII

 

10. This is not a cloning factor

(a) pUC19

(b) SV40

(c) EST

(d) M13

 

11. Cutting and joining of the DNA are which techniques?

a) DNA degradation

b) DNA replication

c) DNA manipulation

d) DNA synthesis


12. What type of DNA enzymes is made use of in most of the DNA manipulative techniques?

a) Partially degraded

b) Purified

c) Degraded or denatured

d) Enclosed in a parent cell


13. Enzymes that remove nucleotides one at a time from the end of a DNA molecule are called ____________

a) Ligases

b) Exonucleases

c) Endonucleases

d) Modifying enzymes


14. The enzyme Bal31 purified from the bacterium Alteromonas Espejiana is an example of which enzyme?

a) Exonuclease

b) Endonuclease

c) Ligase

d) Phosphatase


15. Which endonuclease cleaves both single and double-stranded DNA molecules, in a non-specific manner?

a) S1

b) Bal31

c) DNase I

d) BamHI


16. Klenow fragment is the modified enzyme of which of the parent DNA polymerase?

a) DNA polymerase I

b) DNA polymerase II

c) DNA polymerase III

d) DNA polymerase IV


17. The Taq DNA polymerase is DNA polymerase _________ enzyme from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus.

a) I

b) II

c) III

d) Klenow fragment


18. Which of the following statement is not true in the case of DNA Polymerase- Reverse transcriptase?

a) Involved in the replication of bacteriophage

b) Uses RNA as a template

c) Used in complementary DNA cloning

d) Synthesizes DNA from RNA


19. Which of the following is not a source of alkaline phosphatase enzyme?

a) E.coli

b) Calf intestinal tissue

c) Arctic shrimp

d) Calf thymus tissue


20. The DNA to be cloned must be cleaved along with the vector and with the same restriction enzymes.

a) True

b) False



21. Host controlled restriction is a phenomenon related to ________

a) Bacteria

b) Virus

c) Plasmid

d) Gene of interest


22. Why does the restriction phenomenon in bacteria naturally occur?

a) For efficient cloning

b) Bacteria produce an enzyme

c) Destruction of bacterium’s own DNA

d) For survival





23. Which type of restriction endonucleases is used most in genetic engineering?

a) Type I

b) Type II

c) Type III

d) Type IV


24. The restriction endonuclease PvuI (isolated from Proteus Vulgaris) cuts DNA at which position?

a) Hexanucleotide CGATCG

b) Random position

c) Towards the end

d) Hexanucleotide CAGCTG


25. The restriction endonuclease AluI is isolated from which microbe?

a) Proteus Vulgaris

b) Staphylococcus Aureus

c) Arthrobacter Luteus

d) Haemophilus Influenzae


26. The term ‘endonuclease’ refers to cutting the DNA sequence from ______________

a) only within the polynucleotide chain, not at the ends

b) the ends of the chain

c) anywhere in the chain

d) exactly in the middle of the chain


27. The restriction endonuclease is having a defense mechanism in the bacterial system against foreign DNA such as viruses. But how it is able to protect its own DNA?

a) By methylation of bacterial DNA by restriction enzyme

b) By methylation of foreign DNA by restriction enzyme

c) By phosphorylation of bacterial DNA by restriction enzyme

d) By phosphorylation of foreign DNA by restriction enzyme


28. Even after replication, how the modified DNA remains protected?

a) It remains protected because of the conservative mode of replication

b) It remains protected because of the semi-conservative mode of replication

c) The mode of replication has no role to play in the protection

d) It is again modified after replication


29. How many classes of restriction enzymes are there?

a) 2

b) 1

c) 3

d) 4



30. Type II cuts the sequence in the following way __________

a) Within the recognition sequence

b) At 100-1000 nucleotides away from the recognition sequence

c) At 27-30 nucleotides away from the recognition sequence

d) It cuts randomly



31. After cleaving the sequence, the nature of the ends created by the type II endonuclease is __________

a) The ends created are always single-stranded

b) The ends created are always double-stranded

c) Either the ends are single-stranded or they are double-stranded

d) One end is single-stranded and one end is double-stranded



32. A sequence is having two ends, 5’ and 3’. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the nature of the ends?

a) The 5’ end is having a hydroxyl group

b) The 5’ end is having a phosphate group

c) The 3’ end is having a phosphate group

d) Any group can be present at any end



33. Blunt ends created by the restriction endonuclease can be joined.

a) True

b) False



34. The recognition sequence for BamHI is 5’ G|GATCC 3’. The ‘|’ represents the cutting site. What can be inferred about the ends from it?

a) The ends created are double-stranded

b) The single-stranded end is 5’ in nature

c) The single-stranded end is 3’ in nature

d) To decide about the nature of the ends more information is needed



35. The recognition sequence of Sau3A is 5’ |GATC 3’ and that for DpnI is 5’ GA|TC 3’. Which of the statements is true?

a) The ends created by both the enzymes are compatible

b) The ends created by both the enzymes are not-compatible

c) The ends created by DpnI are single-stranded

d) The ends created by Sau3A are single-stranded



36. The recognition sequence is at times palindromic in nature. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to it?

a) The molecules which are cut by the same enzyme, anneal only if the sequence is palindromic in nature

b) When the molecules are cleaved by the same enzyme and the recognition sequence is palindromic in nature, there is no effect on annealing

c) There are increased chances of annealing if the recognition sequence is palindromic in nature

d) The term ‘palindromic’ can be used whether the sequence is read from 5’ to 3’ or 3’ to 5’


37. If all the nucleotides are present with equal frequencies and at random, what are the chances of having a particular four nucleotide long motif?

a) 1/256

b) 1/64

c) 1/16

d) 1/8



38. Which of the following is the most important discovery that leads to the development of rDNA (recombinant DNA) technology.

  1. Discovery of double helix model by Watson and Crick

  2. Discovery of DNA as a genetic material

  3. Discovery of Restriction enzymes

  4. All of the above



39. Who Discovered Restriction Enzymes

  1. Watson and Crick

  2. Jacob and Monad

  3. Nathan, Arber, and Smith

  4. Boyer and Cohen



40. Restriction Enzymes are 

  1. capable of cutting DNA Molecule

  2. Capable of adding nucleotides to the 3’ OH end

  3. Capable of restriction protein synthesize

  4. Capable of joining DNA Molecules 



41. Restriction Enzymes capable of making internal cuts in a DNA molecule is called

  1. Restriction exonuclease

  2. Restriction endonuclease

  3. Both a and b

  4. S1 nuclease



42. Restriction enzymes are also called as

  1. Molecular knives

  2. Molecular scissors

  3. Molecular scalpels

  4. All of the above



43. The sequence recognized by the restriction enzymes to cut the DNA is called

  1. Recognition site

  2. Restriction site

  3. Both a and b

  4. Cleavage sites



44. Which of the following is true regarding restriction enzymes

  1. Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA Molecule

  2. Restriction enzymes are used to construct restriction maps

  3. Restriction enzymes are used in RELP (Restriction fragment length polymorphism)

  4. All of these above



45. The type of restriction enzymes are used in rDNA technology is

  1. Type I

  2. Type II

  3. Type III

  4. All of the above



46. Which of the following statements are true regarding restriction enzymes

  1. Type I and Type II enzymes far away from the restriction site

  2. Type II cuts DNA within restriction site

  3. Eco R1 is a Type II restriction enzyme

  4. All of the above




47. Restriction site of type II enzymes

  1. Generally are palindromic sequences

  2. Consists of 4-6 bp

  3. Mostly are palindromes with rational symmetry

  4. All of the above



48. Single-stranded unpaired extensions formed by restriction enzyme upon cleavage is called as

  1. Blunt ends

  2. Flush ends

  3. Sticky ends

  4. None of these above



49. Which of the following ions are required for the activity of Type II restriction enzymes

  1. Ca 2+

  2. Mg 2+

  3. Cl 2+

  4. Mn 2+



50. Restriction enzymes

  1. Are present in bacteria and are involved in the host restriction system

  2. Cleave viral DNA inside Bacterium

  3. Are enzymes involved in defense against Bacteriophages

  4. All of these Above







Answer:-

1) B 

2) B

3) C

4) C

5) A

6) D

7) C

8) B

9) D

10) C

11) C

12) B

13) B

14) A

15) C

16) A

17) A

18) A

19) D

20) A

21) A

22) B

23) B

24) A

25) C

26) A

27) A

28) B

29) C

30) A

31) C

32) B

33) A

34) B

35) B

36) C

37) A

38) C

39) C

40) A

41) B

42) D

43) C

44) D

45) B

46) D

47) D

48) C

49) B

50) D



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